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Old 15 December 2021, 10:39 AM   #1
aleexxxxx
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Has anyone attempted trade offers with AD’s?

Just curious if people have tried this in an attempt to get in demand pieces. It seems almost all ADs now sell used Rolex at market pricing. Anyone tried or considered selling their AD an in demand piece at below market value for another in demand piece at MSRP.

Example : You offer up your 116520 for say 15k and get to purchase the 116500 at retail . AD then turns a nice profit on the used piece as they’re trading hands for 28-29k now.
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Old 15 December 2021, 10:59 AM   #2
arcampado
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Not myself personally, but a friend of mine who shares the same AD as me traded his SS Ceramic Daytona Black Dial for under market value to acquire a BLRO (jubilee) brand new at MSRP. He did this trade because he also had a SS Ceramic Daytona White Dial. So to answer your question it does happen and I guess it’s equitable for both parties.
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Old 15 December 2021, 11:54 AM   #3
dpt.calvin
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Quote:
Originally Posted by arcampado View Post
Not myself personally, but a friend of mine who shares the same AD as me traded his SS Ceramic Daytona Black Dial for under market value to acquire a BLRO (jubilee) brand new at MSRP. He did this trade because he also had a SS Ceramic Daytona White Dial. So to answer your question it does happen and I guess it’s equitable for both parties.
I’m trying to do the math, but that doesn’t seem like it adds up to be a good deal for your friend. Guess it depends on how much he got for the DaytonaC.
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Old 15 December 2021, 12:30 PM   #4
dukie748
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A more mundane example - I'd happily give my used 114060 to my AD for a new 124060.

Assuming the markup on a 124060 is approx 40%, it would make the wholesale cost of the new no date around $4860, and give the AD a profit of $3240 on a sale.

If they did a straight exchange (old for new) they could pretty easily retail the 'old' 114060 for around $12.5k which would give them a $7640 profit.

Yes, I could sell the 114060 myself and then buy a 124060, but then I'd have to wait for the watch to arrive and be allocated.

114060 - $12,500

124060 - $8,100 + $800 tax = $8,900

Profit $3,600

At the end of the day I'd be happy to give my AD those profits instead - mainly because I currently have a $12.5k watch, and the new watch would be worth $14k and I’d have a new 5 year warranty.

Completely hypothetical, but in my eyes it would be advantageous for both of us - now if I can just talk my AD into the deal…
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Old 15 December 2021, 12:39 PM   #5
aleexxxxx
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dukie748 View Post
A more mundane example - I'd happily give my used 114060 to my AD for a new 124060.

Assuming the markup on a 124060 is approx 40%, it would make the wholesale cost of the new no date around $4860, and give the AD a profit of $3240 on a sale.

If they did a straight exchange (old for new) they could pretty easily retail the 'old' 114060 for around $12.5k which would give them a $7640 profit.

Yes, I could sell the 114060 myself and then buy a 124060, but then I'd have to wait for the watch to arrive and be allocated.

114060 - $12,500

124060 - $8,100 + $800 tax = $8,900

Profit $3,600

At the end of the day I'd be happy to give my AD those profits instead - mainly because I currently have a $12.5k watch, and the new watch would be worth $14k and I’d have a new 5 year warranty.

Completely hypothetical, but in my eyes it would be advantageous for both of us - now if I can just talk my AD into the deal…
Precisely this. Just wondering if anyones pulled one of these off with an AD.
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Old 15 December 2021, 12:46 PM   #6
ks58
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Gotta find equitable solutions for both parties. But I think it's tough because you know you're not going to get fair value but you have to give to get.
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Old 15 December 2021, 01:09 PM   #7
Kyle3130
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This guy did it.

https://www.rolexforums.com/showthread.php?t=833242
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