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18 May 2010, 09:40 AM | #1 |
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Roman numbers, Why ?
Hi everyone,
I would like to know why Rolex (and some other brands) use the number IIII instead of IV, as it is shown in this marvellous watch: Thank you for your time. |
18 May 2010, 09:57 AM | #2 |
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It's customary in horology. I've heard it argued that the reason was IIII at 4:00 looks better-balanced against the VIII at 8:00. But I suspect now it's just tradition.
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18 May 2010, 09:58 AM | #3 | |
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From Wikipedia:
Quote:
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18 May 2010, 10:02 AM | #4 |
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This question goes back a long way (to sundials, actually). One of the more widely accepted theories is that clocks and watches originally used IIII rather than IV out of respect for the Roman God Jupiter, whose name in Latin begins IV. That, and having the dial "balanced".
Here are a few links about it: http://www.mentalfloss.com/blogs/archives/49669 http://www.ubr.com/clocks/frequently...ock-dials.aspx http://www.watchtalkforums.info/foru...nstead-iv.html http://trusted-forwarder.org/elgin/help/roman_IIII.html
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18 May 2010, 10:09 AM | #5 |
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Thank you all!
Cheers |
18 May 2010, 10:13 AM | #6 |
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The simplest answer is usually the best answer. I think it's just for symmetry since the first four numerals have all I's, the next four have V's, and the last 4 have X's.
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18 May 2010, 11:17 AM | #7 |
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Very informative thread. Thanks.
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18 May 2010, 11:50 AM | #8 |
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I learned something new today from this thread. I never noticed this on my own dial!
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18 May 2010, 12:06 PM | #9 |
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Very interesting. Good readings. Thanks
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26 May 2010, 08:11 PM | #10 |
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Cool. I guess the "balance" makes sense.. thanks for sharing..
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