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20 May 2016, 03:26 AM | #1 |
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Roman Numeral Question
Why on a lot of watch dials is the Roman numeral for 4 shown as IIII rather than IV? Is it so we idiots don't mistake it for 6 VI? Or a design element to somehow balance characters on the dial? I've seen this on Rolex and Breitling in particular. In the grand scheme of things this is real small potatoes, but it is enough to keep me from buying certain models that I would otherwise consider.
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20 May 2016, 03:28 AM | #2 |
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20 May 2016, 03:28 AM | #3 |
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Both forms are actually correct. For whatever reason the watch industry has chosen to use the IIII form.
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20 May 2016, 03:31 AM | #4 |
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20 May 2016, 03:36 AM | #5 |
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Yes, sadly guilty as charged. You guys are the experts and answered that in about 2 minutes. Like water and electricity the path of least resistance is well.....the path of least resistance. Thanks for the quick response.
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"The great Confucius said that he would rather be a profound political economist than chief of police." S. Clemens Last edited by slorollin; 20 May 2016 at 03:40 AM.. Reason: . |
20 May 2016, 04:02 AM | #6 |
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Isn't it to do with splitting the numbers into three equal groups:
1-4 based on "I" I - IIII 5-8 based on "V" V - VIII 9-12 based on "X" IX - XII Not sure I explained that very well
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20 May 2016, 04:02 AM | #7 |
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Origins of the "Watchmaker's 4" probably had to with balancing the aesthetics of IIII with VIII as they would of a similar size as compared with "IV and VIII".
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20 May 2016, 04:40 AM | #8 |
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20 May 2016, 04:43 AM | #9 |
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Isn't IIII a groupshot from biggest looser?
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20 May 2016, 04:47 AM | #10 |
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Hey! when I need to research a watch, this is my first stop too.
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20 May 2016, 06:11 AM | #11 |
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